“JEHOVAH” is a reference to “LORD”. In my Pentateuch ( Five Books of Moses with interlinear Hebrew/English), the original Hebrew script for “LORD” is (reveres order)HE-VAD-HE-YOD, which is HVHY. When we reverse it, it is YHVH. In the Tankh, Exo 6:3 it is translated “.........and Jacob as EL-Sheddai (God Almighty), but I did not make known to them by My name HVHY”. In the Torah “HVHY” is blank or untranslated. In the KJ “HVYH” is translated as “JEHOVAH”.

Scholars in the Scriptures say, in the KJ every where you see “LORD”; all in upper case, is actually a reference to “JEHOVAH”. Some also say this is Jesus Christ’s presence in the OT. They try to separate LORD and God as two different entities. Whether or not they are two different entities is not truly pronounced through the scripture we have.

I feel they are a reference to the same entity. With “LORD” being like a title meaning King over all and God being a reference to an entity able to hold the title of “LORD”. “LORD” is used the same way it is used today in England or France. But when it is used in reference to God it is in absolute meaning and that’s why you see in the KJ “LORD” all in uppercase. It is not a reference to a separate entity as Christian scholars try to proclaim. I feel they are just trying to justify their religion.

Now this is my study of the KJ. The statement that God made in Exo 6:3, can be confirmed as God saying it. According to my KJ Gen 14:22, “LORD” is all upper case. Gen 14:22 can be confirmed as Abram saying it. Also in my KJ Gen 27:20, “LORD” is upper case. Gen 27:20 can be confirmed as a conversation between Isaac and Jacob.

So my question is: How can Abram, Isaac and Jacob make a reference to “JEHOVAH” when God out right said He was not known to them by that name?