I have suspected that the Old Testaments are not the original Bible of a people called Israel. This theory is based on the fact that errors in the Old Testaments can be found. Errors recorded by men can be suspected. Due to the fact that the Old Testaments cover about 3796 years and several deferent people contributed to the writings, it is statistically normal to find conflicting records. It would be next to impossible to cover that amount of time and have a perfect recording.

The conflicts that I am more concerned with, are the ones that involve GOD Himself, because only the Word of GOD should be a direct impact on ones faith. I personally could only find possibly two conflicts. This would be:

Ex:6:3: And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.

That statement is in direct conflict with any passage that shows Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as referring to GOD by the name in Ex6:3. In the Hebrew text in which the Gregorian Bible is said to be translated from, the letter symbols that represent JEHOVAH are exactly the same as they are in these passages and any other place in the KJV where you find "LORD" all in upper and some in lower case form.

Gen:13:4: Unto the place of the altar, which he had made there at the first: and there Abram called on the name of the LORD.

Gen:14:22: And Abram said to the king of Sodom, I have lift up mine hand unto the LORD, the most high God, the possessor of heaven and earth,

These are some of the passages that show Isaac referring to GOD as to the name in Ex6:3.

Gen:26:25: And he builded an altar there, and called upon the name of the LORD and pitched his tent there: and there Isaac's servants digged a well.

Gen:27:20: And Isaac said unto his son, How is it that thou hast found it so quickly, my son? And he said, Because the LORD thy God brought it to me.

These are some of the passages that show Jacob as referring to GOD as to the name in Ex6:3.

Gen:28:16: And Jacob awaked out of his sleep, and he said, Surely the LORD is in this place; and I knew it not.

Gen:32:9: And Jacob said, O God of my father Abraham, and God of my father Isaac, the LORD which saidst unto me, Return unto thy country, and to thy kindred, and I will deal well with thee:

With these passages it can clearly be seen that Abram, Isaac and Jacob did indeed know GOD by the name in Ex6:3. Due to the fact that in the Hebrew Script the name is the same as it is in the passages I have shown you; and the Hebrew Script is said to be the Script in which the Gregorian was translated from, I suspect the people that inserted the name JEHOVAH were looking at or translating from an unknown Book. It is clear the name is exactly the same in the Hebrew Script as it is in the passages I have listed. This is what makes me suspicious that there is another Book in existence that we have not been aloud to see. I suspect this Book would be the original Bible of a people called Israel. And this Book was taken from them during the sedge or fall of Judah. This Book would probably be written in a pre-Canaan type of Script, which also had only 22 letters in its alphabet. I suspect this Book to be in the possession of the Roman Catholic Church. This would also explain why the KJ Bible is referred to as a version.

Why do I suspect the Great Book to be in the possession of the Roman Catholic Church? I suspect the Rome that exists today to be the same Rome in the NT and Babylon in the OT. Seeing it like this is the only way to make the timeline fit to when a man called Immanuel was born. Here is the collated information to determine a valid time line of the OT and NT.

Isa8: 3: And I went unto the prophetess; and she conceived, and bare a son. Then said the LORD to me, Call his name Maher-shalal-hash-baz. 4: For before the child shall have knowledge to cry, My father, and my mother, the riches of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria shall be taken away before the king of Assyria.

Due to the fact that Assyria is not mentioned in the NT, we have to assume Assyria is no longer a ruling nation thus the conditions in Isa8:4 has been fulfilled. And due to the fact that Persia is no longer the leading nation in the NT then the prophesy in Dan11:13 has also been fulfilled. I suspect this prophecy to be describing Babylon returning or re-rising under the name Rome. And it was them that defeated Persia and that's why Persia is no longer the ruling nation when we start reading the NT. But those events and recordings have been removed in the OT and setup to where one would have to study both Books in depth to see this small understanding. All we are left with to figure this out is Dan11:13.

Dan:11:13: For the king of the north shall return, and shall set forth a multitude greater than the former, and shall certainly come after certain years with a great army and with much riches.

Another possible conflict would be the month of Passover. Let it be known that this may not be a conflict but a condition set by GOD. The Passover sacrifice is shown to be in the first month (Abib) and on the fourteenth day of the month. The Passover is constantly shown as being in the first month.

Ex:12:18: In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even, ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even.

This statement is in direct conflict with Num9:11.

Num:9:11: The fourteenth day of the second month at even they shall keep it, and eat it with unleavened bread and bitter herbs.

But Num9:11 might be a condition of Num9:10

Num:9:10: Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If any man of you or of your posterity shall be unclean by reason of a dead body, or be in a journey afar off, yet he shall keep the passover unto the LORD.

Theoretically with the predicament Israel is in and every since Israel fell as a nation and was scattered abroad Num9:11 applies to any people that considers themselves to be Israel. If you consider yourself to be Israel and you are not in your original land, then you should be keeping the Passover on the second month. This would be the month of Zif, Ikgs6:1. According to GOD, the first month of the year is the first month after the month of harvest:

Ex:23:16: And the feast of harvest, the firstfruits of thy labours, which thou hast sown in the field: and the feast of ingathering, which is in the end of the year, when thou hast gathered in thy labours out of the field.

So one has to ask, is Num9:11 a conflict or is it a condition of Num9:10? I personally suspect it to be a type error that occurred during the coping or translating from the true original Book. But according to my own method I would have to adhere to the Word of God and would have to celebrate and began the Passover on the second month of the year or second month after the last month of harvest. All we have at this time is the Specific sayings of GOD, so if a man made an error in translation or interpretation we must assume that GOD has permitted it for a reason. It is even possible that the whole purpose of Num9:11 could be so a man could theorize or suspect a hidden BOOK. The same goes for Exe6:3.

Addendum
More emphases on Exodus 6:3, 9-3-99

Below you can find the graphics of Exo 6:3 from the Hebrew Script in which it is said the Gregorian Bible was translated from and the KJV translated from the Gregorian. As you can see the name in Exo 6:3 is indeed YHVH. So we should not be able to find Abraham, Isaac and Jacob referring to GOD as to the name in Exo 6:3.

These passages show Abraham referring to GOD as to the name in Exo 6:3.

This is one of the passages that show Isaac and Jacob understanding who GOD is in being refered to as to the name in Ex6:3.

And this passage shows Jacob referring to GOD as to the name in Exo 6:3.

So that's my evidence that supports my suspicions that all we have as common people is an interpretation of the original Bible and this even goes as deep as the so called Hebrew Script. As I study more and more I am even beginning to suspect that the original Bible was written in Egyptian Hieroglyphs. Look at it like this; if all of the African Americans were to leave America and go start their own country, what language do you thank they will speak and write in? We have to remember that Israel lived in Egypt for 430 years. When they came up out of Egypt it would be equivalent to African Americans leaving America. Israel as a whole is common people, so we only do as we have been taught or grown accustom to. So it is logical that any personal writings or Scripts by Israel would have been in the language they were accustom to or most understood by the bulk of the people, which would have been Egyptian Hieroglyphs. The Torah; when Moses wrote it from the mouth of YHVH was being done for common people, it was a LAW Book. The bulk of Israel were simple farmers, so they would not be accustom to foreign languages or a development of their own language. Now this may be the case much, much further down the rode but at least the Five Books of Moses was in Egyptian Hieroglyphs. I have been dabbing in Egyptian Hieroglyphs and have found that Hebrew has the exact same rules as the Hieroglyphs have when it comes to reading it. Another thing that makes me suspect this are the names in the Bible. I will use these passages as an example:


So the question become; in Isaiah 8:8 how did they know it was a name instead of a saying, but in Isaiah 8:10 they knew it was a saying and not a name? What made them translate it in this manner? The only language that distinguished between a name and a saying at that time was Egyptian Hieroglyphs. Hieroglyphs use something called a "name ring" and that's how they new how to translate it, through seeing the name ring in Isaiah 8:8. And when they translated the section that became Isaiah 8:10 there was no name ring thus it became a saying and not a name.